- From: Dave Kristol <dmk@research.bell-labs.com>
- Date: Fri, 14 Feb 97 14:04:01 EST
- To: jg@zorch.w3.org
- Cc: http-wg%cuckoo.hpl.hp.com@hplb.hpl.hp.com
Dah Ming Chiu[SMTP:dahming.chiu@Eng.Sun.COM] (via jg@zorch.w3.org) wrote: > Here is a HTTP 1.1 question for you. According to the spec 14.23, the > Host field is defined as > "Host" ":" host [ ":" port ] > where (in 3.2.2), host is defined as > <a legal Internet host ___domain name or IP address...> > > The question is whether a single component name consititute a "legal" > Internet host ___domain name? For example, a user types in "foo" at his > browser, which runs in ___domain "xyz.com". The browser is smart enough > to assume the use wants to talk to "foo.xyz.com", and hence gets the > correct IP address. But in the HTTP request, the browser sends > Host : foo > Does this browser conform to HTTP 1.1? > > If the answer is yes, there may be a problem with HTTP 1.1, since the > ambiguous host name is not sufficient for virtual host implementation. > > I suspect the answer is no, in which case that browser is not conformant. > Could make this point clear in your spec? RFC 2068 also says: The Host field value MUST represent the network ___location of the origin server or gateway given by the original URL. Therefore, my take on this is that, if the URL was http://foo/bar/bletch then Host: foo is correct. If we're in ___domain xyz.com, I could live with seeing Host: foo.xyz.com instead. What would not be acceptable, I think, is if "foo" is an alias for abc(.xyz.com), and we get Host: abc.xyz.com or Host: abc That would defeat the whole point of Host, to allow virtual hosts. Dave Kristol
Received on Friday, 14 February 1997 11:20:45 UTC